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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q55-Q60):
NEW QUESTION # 55
Ideally, the facilitator of a risk assessment workshop should:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Role of a Risk Assessment Facilitator
The facilitator's main role is to guide discussions without bias, ensuring objective risk identification.
PRMIA's Risk Governance Framework highlights neutral facilitation as key to effective risk workshops.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
Objectivity ensures unbiased risk assessment.
Expressing personal opinions can influence risk ratings, leading to distorted outcomes.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Guide the workshop toward a pre-determined conclusion")
Incorrect because risk workshops should discover risks, not confirm pre-set beliefs.
Option B ("Attendees can override results")
Incorrect as risk results should be evidence-based, not subject to override.
Option D ("Attend via video connection")
Incorrect as facilitators must engage actively, making remote facilitation less effective.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Stresses objectivity in risk assessment facilitation.
PRMIA Risk Identification Best Practices - Encourages unbiased workshops.
Final Conclusion:
Facilitators must remain neutral and objective, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 56
How should Near Misses and Opportunity Costs be treated within Operational Risk?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Near Misses in Operational Risk
A near miss is an event that could have led to a loss but was avoided or mitigated before actual financial impact occurred.
PRMIA emphasizes that near misses should be reported, recorded, and analyzed because they provide valuable insights into potential vulnerabilities in risk controls.
However, since they did not result in actual financial losses, they are not included in the calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Opportunity Costs in Operational Risk
Opportunity costs refer to the loss of potential gains due to missed strategic opportunities.
These are not directly quantifiable as operational risk losses and are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations.
PRMIA's Operational Risk Framework states that operational risk is about actual losses rather than theoretical costs.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Ignored.
Incorrect - Near misses and opportunity costs provide valuable insights into operational risk, so they should never be ignored.
B . Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - While they should be recorded and analyzed, they are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations because they do not result in actual losses.
D . Reported, Recorded, and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - Reporting, recording, and analysis are correct, but they should not be included in capital calculations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Standards - Defines near misses and opportunity costs.
Basel II & III Operational Risk Framework - Outlines the principles of operational risk capital calculations.
NEW QUESTION # 57
In Operational Resilience, which of the following is not an important measure of whether a Business Service can be considered Critical?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of a Critical Business Service in Operational Resilience A Critical Business Service is one whose failure could result in severe harm to customers, financial markets, or the firm's viability.
Regulators (e.g., Bank of England, Basel Committee, PRMIA) define three primary factors for identifying critical services:
Customer impact
Market integrity impact
Firm viability impact
Step 2: Why Option C Is Incorrect
Risk appetite is an internal business decision, not an external measure of criticality.
A service can be critical even if its disruption stays within risk appetite.
Criticality is based on external impacts, not just internal risk limits.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Material customer detriment") → Correct as customer harm defines critical services.
Option B ("Harm to market integrity") → Correct as market stability is a regulatory priority.
Option D ("Threaten firm viability") → Correct as critical services often determine business survival.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Resilience Framework - Defines criteria for critical business services.
Basel Committee Operational Risk Guidelines - Highlights customer, market, and firm viability as resilience factors.
Final Conclusion:
Risk appetite is an internal benchmark, not a measure of critical service designation, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 58
In the Basel III standardized approach for operational risk, what is the Business Indicator?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of the Business Indicator (BI) in Basel III
The Business Indicator (BI) is a financial-statement-based metric used in Basel III's Standardized Approach for Operational Risk.
It replaces previous approaches by using financial figures (e.g., revenue, fees, interest income) to estimate operational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Option D Is Correct
The BI uses financial-statement data to calculate operational risk capital requirements.
It acts as a proxy for a bank's operational risk exposure by linking operational risk to its financial size and complexity.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Proxy for near-miss events") → Incorrect because BI is based on financial data, not near-miss risk events.
Option B ("Non-financial-statement-based proxy") → Incorrect because BI is explicitly derived from financial statements.
Option C ("Scaling factor based on historical losses") → Incorrect because BI does not use historical losses directly-it relies on financial-statement inputs.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
Basel III Operational Risk Framework - Defines the Business Indicator as a financial-statement-based metric.
PRMIA Operational Risk Guidelines - Explains the BI's role in capital calculations.
NEW QUESTION # 59
For the FTX case study, what was the "backdoor" used for?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FTX collapse involved fraudulent fund mismanagement, where FTX executives created a "backdoor" to allow Alameda Research (FTX's sister trading firm) to borrow client funds without their consent.
Step 1: The "Backdoor" in FTX
The backdoor was a hidden code in FTX's system, allegedly created by Sam Bankman-Fried, which allowed Alameda to access customer deposits without triggering alerts to auditors or compliance teams.
Alameda used these funds for risky trading strategies and investments, leading to the eventual collapse of FTX when a liquidity crunch exposed the missing funds.
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("allowed a stablecoin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet") Incorrect because FTX's fraud involved misuse of customer funds, not just a stablecoin misclassification.
Option C ("allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years") Incorrect because this sounds more like LIBOR-rigging scandals, whereas FTX misappropriated client funds.
Option D ("allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies") Incorrect because FTX's collapse was due to financial fraud, not poor acquisition strategy.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Financial Crime Risk Management - Discusses insider risk and fraudulent misappropriation of funds.
FTX Collapse Reports - SEC, CFTC, and DOJ filings confirm that Alameda had unauthorized access to client funds.
Final Conclusion:
FTX's backdoor enabled Alameda to take $65 billion in client funds without permission, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 60
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